Arizona Health Insurance Practice Exam Free - 2026

• A. Age 21 and a college degree
• B. Be at least 18, submit the application and fees, pass the examination (or be exempt), submit fingerprints and document lawful presence; a business entity must designate a licensed producer responsible for compliance
• C. Complete 20 hours of prelicensing education
• D. Post a $10,000 surety bond

Correct answer: B. Be at least 18, submit the application and fees, pass the examination (or be exempt), submit fingerprints and document lawful presence; a business entity must designate a licensed producer responsible for compliance

Explanation: An individual applying for an Arizona resident producer license must be at least 18, submit the application with the fees prescribed under A.R.S. 20-167, pass the examination within the year before applying unless exempt, and submit fingerprints for a criminal records check. A business entity must designate a licensed producer responsible for the entity's compliance. Arizona requires no prelicensing education. State law also requires documentation of lawful presence in the United States before a license is issued. See A.R.S. 20-284, 20-285, 41-1080.

• A. Nothing; the director tracks addresses through NIPR
• B. Report the change at her next renewal
• C. Report within 90 days
• D. Report the changes to the director within 30 days

Correct answer: D. Report the changes to the director within 30 days

Explanation: Arizona producers are licensed for one or more of the lines of authority listed in the statute, and a licensee must report any change of residence, business address, telephone number or email address, and changes in a business entity's information, to the director within 30 days. See A.R.S. 20-286.

• A. Notify the director on the prescribed form before using the assumed name
• B. Nothing; assumed names are unregulated
• C. A separate business entity license
• D. Approval from the Corporation Commission only

Correct answer: A. Notify the director on the prescribed form before using the assumed name

Explanation: A producer doing business under any name other than the licensee's legal name must notify the director, on the director's form, before using the assumed name. The license itself is not changed by the assumed name, and the licensee remains responsible for business transacted under it. See A.R.S. 20-297.

• A. The license is revoked and must be reapplied for
• B. The license continues with no changes to deadlines
• C. On written request the license is placed on inactive status; the licensee may not sell, solicit or negotiate while inactive but may receive renewal commissions on earlier sales, and renewal and continuing education deadlines are extended by the days of active service
• D. The license is transferred to a colleague

Correct answer: C. On written request the license is placed on inactive status; the licensee may not sell, solicit or negotiate while inactive but may receive renewal commissions on earlier sales, and renewal and continuing education deadlines are extended by the days of active service

Explanation: A licensee or applicant called to active military service may ask the director in writing to place the license or application on inactive status, giving the name, license number and the date service begins. While inactive, the licensee may not sell, solicit or negotiate insurance but may receive renewal or other deferred commissions on business written while active. Deadlines for renewal fees, renewal requirements and continuing education are extended by the number of days of active service, documented with the renewal application. Periodic and routine service as a reservist is not active military service. See A.R.S. 20-289.01.

• A. Coverage that pays for nursing home or custodial care for the rest of the insured's life
• B. Coverage that replaces income for a limited period, typically a few months
• C. Coverage that pays hospital and doctor bills for chronic conditions over many years
• D. Coverage that provides income for extended periods, often until age 65

Correct answer: D. Coverage that provides income for extended periods, often until age 65

Explanation: Long-term disability insurance provides income replacement for extended periods, potentially lasting years or until the insured reaches age 65, after short-term disability benefits are exhausted.

• A. Partial benefits when the insured can work but at reduced capacity or income
• B. Full benefits that continue after the insured recovers and returns to work full time
• C. Benefits for a disability that recurs after the insured has returned to work
• D. Benefits payable for the portion of the elimination period the insured has completed

Correct answer: A. Partial benefits when the insured can work but at reduced capacity or income

Explanation: Residual disability coverage provides partial benefits when the insured can return to work but at reduced hours or in a limited capacity, resulting in reduced income.

• A. Joint federal-state program for people with limited income and assets
• B. Federal health insurance program primarily for people 65 and older
• C. State-administered program that pays for work-related injuries and illness
• D. Private supplemental insurance that pays deductibles and coinsurance

Correct answer: B. Federal health insurance program primarily for people 65 and older

Explanation: Medicare is a federal health insurance program primarily for people 65 and older, as well as certain younger people with disabilities and those with End-Stage Renal Disease.

• A. Medical insurance for doctor visits and outpatient care
• B. Outpatient prescription drug coverage
• C. Hospital insurance including inpatient care
• D. Routine dental, vision, and hearing services

Correct answer: C. Hospital insurance including inpatient care

Explanation: Medicare Part A is hospital insurance that covers inpatient hospital stays, skilled nursing facility care, hospice care, and some home health care.

• A. Hospital insurance including inpatient stays and skilled nursing care
• B. Prescription drug coverage sold through private plans
• C. Custodial long-term nursing home care for the elderly
• D. Medical insurance including doctor services and outpatient care

Correct answer: D. Medical insurance including doctor services and outpatient care

Explanation: Medicare Part B is medical insurance that covers physician services, outpatient care, preventive services, durable medical equipment, and some home health care.

• A. Private supplemental policies that pay Original Medicare's deductibles, copays, and coinsurance
• B. Private health plans that provide all Part A and B coverage, often with additional benefits
• C. Stand-alone prescription drug plans sold by private insurers approved by Medicare
• D. Government-run plans that replace Parts A and B for people who are still working at 65

Correct answer: B. Private health plans that provide all Part A and B coverage, often with additional benefits

Explanation: Medicare Part C (Medicare Advantage) plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare. They must cover everything Original Medicare covers and often include additional benefits like vision, dental, and prescription drugs.

• A. Prescription drug coverage
• B. Inpatient hospital care
• C. Outpatient physician services
• D. Routine dental and vision care

Correct answer: A. Prescription drug coverage

Explanation: Medicare Part D provides prescription drug coverage. It's offered through private plans approved by Medicare, either as stand-alone prescription drug plans or as part of Medicare Advantage plans.

• A. A private plan that replaces Original Medicare to deliver Part A and B benefits
• B. A state program that pays Medicare premiums for people with limited income
• C. Private insurance that helps pay Medicare's gaps like deductibles and coinsurance
• D. A private drug plan that fills the coverage gap in Medicare's Part D benefit

Correct answer: C. Private insurance that helps pay Medicare's gaps like deductibles and coinsurance

Explanation: Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policies are sold by private insurers to help pay for out-of-pocket costs not covered by Original Medicare, such as deductibles, copays, and coinsurance.